ST AMANT HIGH SCHOOL

DRILL MEET QUESTION BANK

January 2007

(MS Word version)

1.      The military uniform is a symbol of the nation's defense forces.  Thus the word "uniform" suggests a

a)      uniform composition.

b)      symbol of honor.

c)      distinctive mode of dress.

d)      devotion to duty.

 

2.      Who is the only person who can approve modifications to cadets' uniforms?

a)      school principal

b)      Naval Science Instructor

c)      NJROTC Area Manager

d)      NJROTC Program Office

 

3.      What articles/items may be worn exposed when in uniform?

a)      cell phones

b)      pens

c)      watch chains

d)      no articles may be exposed

 

4.      What type of facial hair is permitted to be worn by male cadets?

a)      goatee

b)      full beard

c)      trimmed mustache

d)      Muttonchop sideburns

 

5.      What head gear is optional for officers and chiefs as part of their NJROTC uniform?

a)      Combination cap

b)      Khaki garrison cap

c)      Black garrison cap

d)      None of the above

 

6.      Ribbons and aiguillettes are not authorized on which of the following male and female NJROTC uniforms?

a)      Short Sleeve Summer Blue

b)      Service Dress Blue

c)      Winter Blue

d)      Winter Working Blue

 

7.      How is the most senior ribbon worn on the uniform shirt when more than one ribbon is worn?

a)      On the bottom row and outboard

b)      On the top row and outboard

c)      On the bottom row and inboard

d)      On the top row and inboard

 

8.      What is the "Rule of Thumb" when wearing a ribbon with a dark color on one end and a light color on the other end?

a)      Dark color inboard

b)      Dark color outboard

c)      No rule exist

d)      None of the above

 

9.      The male necktie, black in color is authorized fabric measuring no more than___________ wide.

a)      2 1/2 inches

b)      4 1/4 inches

c)      3 1/2 inches

d)      3 1/4 inches

 

10.  Which one of the following awards is awarded to one cadet in each year group with the highest overall academic achievement (GPA) in school, including all naval science courses?

a)      Distinguished Cadet

b)      Honor Cadet

c)      Exemplary Cadet

d)      All of the above

 

11.  What award is given to that cadet who demonstrates an exceptional dedication to the NJROTC program?

a)      Honor Cadet Award

b)      Distinguished Cadet Award

c)      Military Aptitude Award

d)      Meritorious Cadet Achievement Award

 

12.  What device is put on a ribbon for the fourth award?

a)      2 bronze stars

b)      1 Silver star

c)      2 Silver stars

d)      1 Gold star

 

13.  What award is given yearly to one cadet in each year group with the highest combined average for overall scholastic standing and aptitude in the NJROTC unit activities (academics, homework, physical fitness etc?)

a)      CNET Cadet Award

b)      Honor Cadet Award

c)      Gilliam Award

d)      Distinguished Cadet Award

 

14.  What is the single most important factor in determining ability to survive in cold climates?

a)      Food

b)      Good health

c)      Shelter preparation

d)      Fire

 

15.  What two items are just as necessary as food and water for a stranded person?

a)      Cooking utensils and a rifle

b)      Shelter and sleep

c)      Aspirin and matches

d)      Map and compass

 

16.  Which of the following is a survivor's second most urgent need in a survival situation?

a)      Shelter

b)      Health

c)      Food

d)      Fire

 

17.  A baked opossum contains how many grams of fat?

a)      8.2

b)      10.6

c)      approximately 50

d)      roughly 100

                           

18.  An adequate shelter

a)      serves as a place to rest, and protection from the effects of the environment.

b)      is vented to allow fresh air in, and is free from evergreen boughs, and is easily transportable.

c)      Both A and B.

d)      Neither A or B.

 

19.  Which of the following is described as being a key step to take if you know that you might be in a survival situation in a wilderness area?

a)      Shelter preparation

b)      Prepare a survival kit

c)      Health maintenance

d)      Food preparation

 

20.  To maintain efficiency, survivors require a minimum daily caloric intake of

a)      2,000 calories.

b)      6,000 calories.

c)      4,000 calories.

d)      2,500 calories.

 

21.  The 3 major constituents of foods are

a)      oils, fats, protein

b)      carbohydrates, fats, proteins

c)      fats, protein, meat

d)      vegetables, fruits, breads

 

22.  What does a survivor have to do to beat all odds against them to survive in a survival situation?

a)      Attend health classes

b)      Attend survival training

c)      Develop a survival pattern

d)      Build survival equipment

 

23.  Shelters that are easy to construct and dismantle in a short period of time are called

a)      three pole frame shelters.

b)      immediate action shelters.

c)      improvised shelters.

d)      four pole frame shelters.

 

24.  Traveling in a jungle environment would be greatly aided by the use of a

a)      club.

b)      machete.

c)      spear.

d)      gun.

 

25.  What are the four principle types of tropical jungle?

a)      Mangrove, primary jungle, secondary jungle, rain forest

b)      Primary jungle, secondary jungle, tertiary jungle, mangrove

c)      Mangrove, primary jungle, secondary jungle, high mountain jungle forest

d)      Rain forest, mangrove, primary jungle, high mountain jungle forest

 

26.  Which of the following jungle types is probably the most difficult type of terrain in which to travel and find food?

a)      Mangrove jungle

b)      Secondary jungle

c)      High mountain jungle

d)      Primary jungle

 

27.  What percent of the Earth is covered by water?

a)      50

b)      70

c)      65

d)      85

 

28.  A cadet Lieutenant (Junior Grade) is designated by a collar device of

a)      three attached gold bars.

b)      two attached gold bars.

c)      five attached gold bars.

d)      four attached gold bars.

 

 

29.  Which one of the following used as a food source must be used with a sufficient supply of water.

a)      Seaweeds

b)      Dogweeds

c)      Seabirds

d)      Plankton

 

30.  How many gold stripes are on the Blue Service coat sleeve of a Captain in the Navy?

a)      4

b)      3

c)      1 wide

d)      2

 

31.  Naval science instructors and school officials can learn the condition of many aspects of training, morale, and leadership that exists in their unit by the cadets'

a)      self-discipline.

b)      appearance.

c)      outstanding academic performance.

d)      pride.

 

32.  Personnel inspections often require a lot of

a)      spit and polish.

b)      self-discipline.

c)      planning and preparation.

d)      starch.

 

33.  What are the colors of the collar insignia of a Chief Warrant Officer Three (CWO3)?

a)      blue and gray

b)      blue and gold

c)      blue and silver

d)      blue and black

 

34.  One of the positive things that personnel inspection promotes for the cadet is

a)      pride in their units.

b)      attention to detail.

c)      self-discipline.

d)      All of the above.

 

35.  What item is NOT inspected at a personnel inspection?

a)      neck properly shaved

b)      good posture

c)      clothes that are fit properly

d)      sword

 

36.  What is the collar insignia of a Navy Commander?

a)      two silver bars

b)      oak leaf

c)      silver eagle

d)      acorn

 

37.  Which concept below refers to a person who develops a set of beliefs, ideals, interests, likes and dislikes that govern behavior?

a)      Heredity

b)      Ethics

c)      Morality

d)      Value system

 

38.  Puberty usually occurs between what ages in girls?

a)      Fourteen to fifteen years old

b)      Nine to Thirteen years old

c)      Thirteen to sixteen years old

d)      None of the above

 

39.  What is the third greatest cause of death among people aged fifteen to twenty-four?

a)      Drinking and driving

b)      Drowning

c)      Freak accidents

d)      Suicide

 

40.  Regarding national flag, which statement is NOT correct?

a)      Our flag is our companion around the world

b)      Never display the flag in or near a polling place

c)      The flag should be displayed on all days

d)      The flag is a living thing.  There is magic in its folds.

 

41.  What are the Five Food Groups?

a)      poultry, meat, fish, vegetable, fruit

b)      red meat, citrus, vegetable, oils, fruit

c)      milk, meat, vegetable, fruit, grain

d)      grain, poultry, rice, juice, vegetable

 

42.  Before you start a vigorous exercise, you should

a)      warm-up.

b)      cool-down.

c)      check your heart rate.

d)      just go straight into exercising.

 

43.  ___________ is the ability to keep upright while you are standing still or moving.

a)   Coordination

b)   Balance

c)   Speed

d)   Reaction Time

 

44.  Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?

a)      Mental fitness

b)      Physical fitness

c)      Emotional fitness

d)      Cardiovascular fitness

 

45.  For exercise to be beneficial, you need to increase the amount you do over a period of time.  This is called

a)   Principle of Overload

b)   Principle of Progression

c)   Principle of Specificity

d)   Principle of Good Judgment

 

46.  Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of first aid?

a)      To gain insights on safety prevention

b)      To prevent further injury

c)      To save a life

d)      To minimize or prevent infection

 

47.  What first aid measure should be taken after determining the extent of the patient's injury?

a)      Check for breathing

b)      Check for shock

c)      Check for bleeding

d)      Check for pulse

 

48.  What are the three basic types of heat casualties?

a)   Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Stroke

b)   Heat Exhaustion, Heat Emergency, Heat Exercise

c)   Heat Cramps, Heat Loss, Heat Stroke

d)   Heat Stroke, Heat Emergency, Heat Cramps

 

49.  Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction in a casualty who is unconscious?

a)      The throat

b)      The hands

c)      The stomach

d)      The tongue

 

50.  Which one of the following methods is NOT used to control bleeding?

a)      Direct pressure

b)      Tourniquet

c)      Cast

d)      Elevation

 

51.  What is the type of bleeding in which blood flow is slow and blood oozes from the wound?

a)      Arterial bleeding

b)      Bleeding from the veins

c)      Capillary bleeding

d)      Outward bleeding

 

52.  What is the type of bleeding in which the bleeding is bright red, and the blood spurts from the wound?  This type of bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.

a)      Capillary bleeding

b)      Bleeding from the veins

c)      Inward bleeding

d)      None of the above

 

53.  What is the type of bleeding that is dark red, and flows in a steady stream?

a)      Dark colored bleeding

b)      Capillary bleeding

c)      Bleeding from veins

d)      Arterial bleeding

 

54.  What is the basic position for treating shock?

a)      Stand the victim upright

b)      Lay victim on his/her right side

c)      Position victim in a curled position

d)      Position victim's head lower than the feet

 

55.  The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are

a)      veinal punctures and collapse of lungs.

b)      bleeding and infection.

c)      amputation and gangrene.

d)      bleeding and shock.

 

56.  The most common injuries in a first aid situation are

a)      injuries to the bones and joints.

b)      soft tissue injuries.

c)      dislocation of internal organs.

d)      cranial obstruction

 

57.  Which of the following burns result from exposure to acids, alkalies, or other strong chemicals?

a)      Thermal burns

b)      Chemical burns

c)      Electrical burns

d)      None of the above

 

58.  The first Naval JROTC programs began in

a)      1995

b)      1911

c)      1964

d)      1975

 

59.  Where is NSTC (Naval Service Training Command) located?

a)      Great Lakes, IL

b)      Pentagon, Washington D.C.

c)      Pearl Harbor, HI

d)      San Diego, CA

 

60.  Which NJROTC competition below is similar to a timed treasure hunt?

a)      Obstacle course

b)      Orienteering

c)      Marksmanship

d)      Rappelling

 

61.  Which one of the following statements is NOT an objective of the Leadership Academy?

a)      To promote orderliness and precision, and develop respect for constituted authority.

b)      To challenge and motivate cadets to push toward their physical and intellectual limits.

c)      To instill a high degree of personal honor, self-reliance, and confidence in each cadet.

d)      To enhance basic attitude, knowledge and skills required to participate at all levels of high school athletic activities.

 

62.  Maritime Geography is the study of

a)      oceans and seas of the world.

b)      weather.

c)      study of the universe.

d)      study of land.

 

63.  What is the "major" training goal of the NJROTC Program?

a)      Develop friendships

b)      Develop orienteering skills

c)      Develop self-discipline

d)      Develop military drill skills

 

64.  Which of the following is NOT one of the four R's in the study method referred to as OK4R?

a)      Recall

b)      Read

c)      Reflect

d)      Respect

 

65.  Which of the following is NOT a part of the study method referred to as PQRST?

a)      Present

b)      Question

c)      Read

d)      Test

 

66.  Meteorology is the science of

a)      the ocean.

b)      comets and meteors.

c)      weather.

d)      the atmosphere.

 

67.  Where is the U.S. Naval Academy located?

a)      Pensacola, FL

b)      Washington D.C.

c)      Jacksonville, FL

d)      Annapolis, MD

 

68.  A student who has three years as an NJROTC Cadet can enlist as an E-3 in all services except the

a)      Navy

b)      Army

c)      Marines

d)      Air Force

 

69. What are values?

     a) Deeply held ideals, beliefs, customs and principals

     b) Opinions we grow up with

     c) That which we consider worthwhile

e) Judgments about others

 

70.  Astronomy is the study of

a.       Earth.

b.      weather.

c.       the ocean.

d.      the universe beyond Earth.

 

71. What should you do when operating in a moral or ethical gray area?

         a) Ask your instructor what to do.

         b) Use the Navy core values to help you navigate the gray areas.

         c) Follow the suggestions of your fellow cadets.

         d) Do what seems best at the time.

 

  1. Which one of the following is NOT a trait of an independent follower?

a.       Carries out assigned tasks in a responsible manner

b.      Offers appropriate suggestions for improvement up the chain-of-command

c.       Seeks out responsibility

d.      Takes a passive approach to his/her role of follower

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true about dependent followers?

a.       They seek out responsibility

b.      They go along with anything suggested

c.       They are the "yes" people or the "sheep"

d.      They do not contribute, they just "do"

 

  1. Which of the following aircraft serves as the Navy's communication relay for fleet ballistic missile submarines and airborne command post for strategic forces?

a.       E-6A Mercury

b.      P-3C Orion

c.       S-3B Viking

d.      C-2A Greyhound

 

  1. Which of the following is a twin engine cargo/passenger aircraft whose primary mission is carrier on-board delivery (C.O.D)?

a.       P-3C Orion

b.      C-2A Greyhound

c.       S-3B Viking

d.      C-130 Hercules

 

  1. Which of the following is a two-seat turboprop trainer whose mission is to provide "primary" flight training for Navy and Marine Corps student pilots?

a.       E-6A Mercury

b.      C-12F Huron

c.       C-9 Skytrain

d.      T-34C Turbomentor

 

  1. Which of the following is a twin-engine helicopter whose primary mission is to detect and destroy enemy submarines.

a.       MH-53E Sea Dragon

b.      TH-57 Ranger

c.       SH-60 Seahawk

d.      V-22A Osprey

 

  1. Which of the following is a joint service multi-mission aircraft with vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) capabilities?

a.       TH-57 Sea Ranger

b.      MH-53-Sea Dragon

c.       V-22A Osprey

d.      T-45A Goshawk

 

  1. Which of the following helicopters operates from carriers and other warships?

a.       V-22A Osprey

b.      MH-53E Sea Dragon

c.       SH-60 Seahawk

d.      TH-57 Sea Ranger

 

  1. Which of the following is a jet-powered, twin-engine carrier-based aircraft?

a.       C-2A Greyhound

b.      P-3C Orion

c.       S-3B Viking

d.      F-14 Tomcat

 

  1. The ___________ is a four-engine turboprop aircraft that is capable of taking off and landing from short runways.

a.       E-6A Mercury

b.      C-130 Hercules

c.       C-12F Huron

d.      C-9 Skytrain

 

  1. Which of the following is the primary training helicopter for students becoming naval aviators?

a.       V-22A Osprey

b.      MH-53E Sea Dragon

c.       SH-60 Seahawk

d.      TH-57 Sea Ranger

 

  1. Which one of the following statements is NOT an objective of the Leadership Academy?

a.       To promote orderliness and precision, and develop respect for constituted authority.

b.      To challenge and motivate cadets to push toward their physical and intellectual limits.

c.       To instill a high degree of personal honor, self-reliance, and confidence in each cadet.

d.      To enhance basic attitude, knowledge and skills required to participate at all levels of high school athletic activities.

 

  1. The capital of the Byzantine Empire was at

a.       Constantinople.

b.      Rome.

c.       Athens.

d.      Macedonia.

 

  1. The longest period of peace in world history was known as the

a.       Mare Nostrum.

b.      Pax Romana.

c.       Golden Age of Athens.

d.      Crusades.

 

  1. Our alphabet is based on the alphabet of what ancient people?

a.       Phoenicians.

b.      Greeks.

c.       Romans.

d.      Cretans.

 

  1. What is the name of the first U. S. nuclear powered submarine, commissioned in 1955?

a.       USS Polaris

b.      USS Trident

c.       USS Aegis

d.      USS Nautilus

 

  1. The term "Iron Curtain" was coined by Winston Churchill to

a.       describe the boundary erected by the Soviets between the Western democracies and Communist satellites on the European continent.

b.      illustrate the opposition between the East and West in the Cold War.

c.       proclaim the establishment of an Allied defense line in Europe against further Soviet military advances.

d.      None of the above are correct.  The Soviets established the Iron Curtain to prevent Allied military advances into Eastern Europe after World War II.

 

  1. The National Security Act of 1947 created the

a.       Joint Chiefs of Staff.

b.      National Security Council.

c.       Central Intelligence Agency.

d.      All of the above are correct.

 

  1. Which of the following is a member of the President's Cabinet?

a.       Secretary of the Navy

b.      Secretary of Defense

c.       Chairman of the Joints Chiefs of Staff

d.      Secretary of the Air Force

 

  1. In what year was the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) formed?

a.       1939

b.      1949

c.       1959

d.      1969

 

  1. Of the following, who became the first Secretary of Defense in 1947?

a.       James Forrestal

b.      George Marshall

c.       Douglas MacArthur

d.      Chester Nimitz

 

  1. Who was elected President in November 1952?

a.       Harry Truman

b.      Douglas MacArthur

c.       C. Turner Joy

d.      Dwight Eisenhower

 

  1. North Vietnam captured South Vietnam in

a.       January 1973.

b.      February 1973.

c.       March 1974.

d.      April 1975.

 

  1. The amount of energy or power in a sound wave in any given location is called the________________

a.       Doppler Effect.

b.      Salinity.

c.       Wattage.

d.      Sound intensity.

 

  1. Relative intensity or noise level, is calculated in units called _____________

a.       Ohms.

b.      Decibels.

c.       Echoes.

d.      Reflection.

 

  1. The unit used to measure the rate at which current flows is called
            a. ohms
            b. amperes
            c. None of the above
            d. Both A and B
     
  2. The  portion of a ship that is above water is known as the ___________________

a.       Freeboard

b.      Waterline

c.       Buoyancy

d.      Buoyant force

 

  1. The line around a boat where the surface of the water meets it when it float is known as the ____________.

a.       Freeboard

b.      Waterline

c.       Center of gravity

d.      Quarterdeck

 

  1. Objects in water float because of the principle known as ______________.

a.       Buoyancy

b.      Gravity

c.       Density

d.      Salinity

 

  1. The _____________________ is the geometric center of the portion of the ship's hull that is underwater.

a.       Center of gravity

b.      Center of mass

c.       Center of density

d.      Center of buoyancy

 

  1. The English unit for measuring work is known as _____________.

a.       Foot/pounds

b.      Volts

c.       Horsepower

d.      Joules

 

  1. A body traveling at Mach 1 is traveling how fast.

a.       Speed of sound

b.      Speed of light

c.       6000 MPH

d.      3000 MPH

 

  1. Light travels at the rate of ____________.

a.       300,000 MPH

b.      186,000 MPS

c.       186 MPH

d.      186 MPS

 

  1. Chemistry is the study of

a.       atmospheric behavior.

b.      matter and how it changes under various conditions.

c.       the interaction between living organisms and their environment.

d.      ancient cultures.

 

  1. What are the units of force in the English system?

a.       Newtons.

b.      Joules.

c.       Pounds.

d.      Both A and C.

 

  1. Most of the bright stars are we see at night are

a.       Giant stars

b.      Supergiant stars

c.       Nova stars

d.      White dwarfs

 

  1. After the Sun, what star is closest to the Earth?

a.       Rigel

b.      Antares

c.       Alpha Centauri

d.      The Sun

 

  1. Asteroids are generally found between these planets.

a.       Earth and Mars

b.      Mars and Mercury

c.       Mars and Jupiter

d.      Saturn and Pluto

 

  1. The most plentiful bodies in our solar system are:

a.       Asteroids

b.      Comets

c.       Stars

d.      Planets
 

  1. In 1894 Admiral Robert Peary found the largest meteorite ever found in the western hemisphere.  In what country was it discovered?

a.       Candor

b.      Greenland

c.       America

d.      France

 

  1. The lowest layer of the sun's atmosphere is called the

a.       photosphere.

b.      magnetosphere.

c.       chromosphere.

d.      coronasphere.

 

  1. What is it called when hydrogen gases are transformed into helium?

a.       Solar fusion

b.      Fission process

c.       Nuclear fusion

d.      Hydrogen process

 

  1. Which is the outermost layer of the sun's atmosphere?

a.       Core

b.      Photosphere

c.       Chromosphere

d.      Corona

 

  1. Which layer of the Sun's atmosphere is 8,000 to 10,000 miles deep composed primarily of hydrogen and gaseous calcium?

a.       Core

b.      Photosphere

c.       Chromosphere

d.      Corona

 

  1. Sunspots have been known to last as long as

a.       a year and a half.

b.      one year.

c.       half year.

d.      twenty days.

 

  1. The moon's diameter is roughly ________ that of the earth's.

a.       One fifth

b.      One third

c.       One half

d.      One quarter

 

  1. Temperatures on the moon range from:

a.       750 F to -750 F

b.      243.0 F to -261.0 F

c.       243.0 C to -261.0 C

d.      0 Kelvin to 100 Kelvin

 

  1. The moons mountains are

a.       Concentrated in the northern hemisphere

b.      Considerably lower than those on earth

c.       Very smooth due to the constant bombardment from meter dust

d.      Concentrated in the southern hemisphere

 

  1. Moonquakes

a.       Cause the moon to vibrate for extended periods

b.      Have severe tremors lasting only a few seconds

c.       Are non-existent

d.      Are a new to this century

 

  1. Phases of the moon are caused by

a.       Light reflected off the earth

b.      Relative positions of the sun, earth and moon

c.       The moons motion in its orbit

d.      Both B & C

 

  1. The moon passing through the shadow of the earth is called

a.       Lunar eclipse

b.      Waning

c.       Solar eclipse

d.      Blackout

 

  1. The average distance in miles the sun is from the earth has been calculated to be nearly

a.       90700000

b.      91500000

c.       93000000

d.      94700000

 

  1. Astronomy is the study of _____________.

a.       the atom

b.      the universe

c.       the solar system

d.      the zodiac

 

  1. What year was the Geneva Conference on the Seas that gave littoral nations exclusive rights to develop all the natural resources in the continental shelf adjacent to their own shores.

a.       1932

b.      1956

c.       1958

d.      1967

 

  1. What percentage of tin does the U.S. import?

a.       77

b.      80

c.       90

d.      99

 

  1. How many "strategic resources" are there that the United States cannot do without?

a.       20

b.      40

c.       60

d.      80

 

  1. What percentage of chromite does the U.S. import?

a.       90%

b.      70%

c.       55%

d.      30%

 

  1. What are the four main ocean areas that are of prime importance to the United States?

a.       Atlantic, Pacific, Arctic, Afro-Asian.

b.      Atlantic, Pacific, Indian, Mediterranean.

c.       Atllantic, Pacific, European, Asian.

d.      North Atlantic, South Atlantic, North Pacific, South Pacific.

 

  1. The Pacific Ocean extends from the Bering Strait to the

a.       Suez Canal.

b.      Strait of Malacca.

c.       Strait of Gibraltar.

d.      Cape of Good Hope.

 

  1. With regards to sea power, tactical mobility can be defined as the ability to

a.       turn and accelerate rapidly in the water.

b.      project power inland with naval gunfire and aviation assets.

c.       easily replenish fuel, stores, and ammunition at sea.

d.      move naval forces quickly and disperse whenever and however necessary.

 

  1. The Mediterranean Sea is a part of which main ocean area?

a.       Atlantic.

b.      Pacific.

c.       Arctic.

d.      Afro-Asian.

 

  1. Aquaculture is defined as

a.       the science of mapping the oceans' floors.

b.      the study of the culture of seafaring nations.

c.       the science of farming the sea.

d.      the science of water and its properties.

 

  1. The Afro-Asian Ocean includes the

a.       South Atlantic and Indian Oceans.

b.      North and South Pacific Oceans.

c.       North and South Atlantic Oceans.

d.      South Pacific and Indian Oceans.

 

  1. What percentage of manganese does the U.S. import?

a.       46%

b.      65%

c.       85%

d.      95%

 

  1. What percentage of bauxite ore does the U.S. import?

a.       55%

b.      65%

c.       75%

d.      85%

 

  1. What was the five leading ports in the U.S. as of the year 2000?

a.       New Orleans, Seattle, Chicago, Houston, Long Beach

b.      Charleston, Houston, Seattle, Los Angeles, Galveston

c.       New Orleans, Mobile, Jacksonville, Portland, Corpus Christi

d.      New York, Long Beach, Los Angeles, Charleston, Oakland

 

  1. What is a major advantage of the RoRo ship?

a.       Fuel Efficiency

b.      Speed

c.       Cargo capacity

d.      Requires few facilities ashore

 

  1. The Grand Alliance developed in World War II was composed of

a.       Great Britain and United States.

b.      the United Sates, Great Britain, and the Soviet Union.

c.       the United States, Great Britain, and France.

d.      Germany, Italy, and Japan.

 

  1. The strategy of Flexible Response was developed during the presidency of

a.       Richard Nixon

b.      Lyndon Johnson

c.       John F. Kennedy

d.      George H, W. Bush

 

  1. What are the two categories of major naval ships?

a.       special warfare and strike warfare

b.      combatants and auxiliaries

c.       tactical and strategic

d.      logistic and tactical

 

  1. The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons is called:

a.       amphibious warfare

b.      surface warfare

c.       air warfare

d.      strike warfare

 

  1. The tools with which commanders exercise their command and control responsibilities are grouped into five subdivisions, C41 for short.  The five subdivisions are:

a.       Command, Chemicals, Computers, Containment and Intelligence

b.      Command, Communications, Coast Guard, Chemicals and International Law

c.       Control, Communications, Chemicals, Computers, and Intelligence

d.      Command, Control, Communications, Computers and Intelligence

 

  1. What is a proxy war?

a.       War with neighboring states

b.      Naval warfare between submarines

c.       Close quarter combat aboard a naval ship

d.      A major power using satellite states to fight another major power.

 

  1. What is a coup de grace?

a.       mortal stroke

b.      overthrow of a peaceful government

c.       a fall from grace

d.      assassination of party leader

 

  1. Limited war falls between the extremes of general war and the so-called

a.       proxy war.

b.      gorilla war.

c.       revolutionary war.

d.      cold war.

 

  1. General war is defined as

a.       hostile activities between two or more sovereign states.

b.      armed conflict between the major nuclear powers in which all resources are employed and national survival is at stake.

c.       conflict in which states justifiably defend their own territory and sovereignty when attacked by aggressors.

d.      armed conflict, exclusive of incidents, in which one or more major powers voluntarily exercise restraints to prevent  imaginable escalation.

 

  1. What is Pax Ballistica?

a.       A new strategic submarine weapon

b.      A part of the Star Wars missile defense system

c.       Mutually-assured Destruction (MAD)

d.      A missile peace

 

  1. What is a Cold War?

a.       A war in which all measures short of armed combat are used

b.      A war in which the total resources of belligerents are employed

c.       An armed encounter in which one or more major powers voluntarily restricts themselves in order to prevent escalation.

d.      A war that is fought above the Arctic Circle

 

  1. The Vietnam War was a classic example of ______ imposed by political leaders.

a.       proxy war

b.      pax ballistica

c.       target limitation

d.      tactical responsibility

 

  1. The main body of the ship is called the

a.       superstructure

b.      masts

c.       hull

d.      keel

 

  1. Who chooses the name of a Navy ship?

a.       Secretary of the Navy

b.      the President

c.       Chief of Naval Operations

d.      Secretary of Defense

 

  1. What is the purpose of damage control?

a.      To prevent, contain, or correct damage aboard a ship

b.      To inspect damage which has occurred aboard a vessel

c.       To train all individuals on how to complete required reports

d.      To salvage repair parts following accidents

 

  1. Emergency alarms include

a.       general, chemical, and attack alarms.

b.      fire, general, and chemical alarms.

c.       chemical, collision, and enemy attack alarms.

d.      general, collision, and chemical alarms.

 

  1. The three basic ingredients necessary for a fire are

a.       fuel, heat, and light.

b.      oxygen, heat, and fuel.

c.       oil, fuel, and heat.

d.      light, wind, and air.

 

  1. How many battleships does the U.S. Navy have in commission?

a.       Three

b.      Two

c.       Four

d.      None

 

  1. What is the most effective weapon against a submarine?

a.       Aircraft

b.      Another submarine

c.       Depth charges

d.      Electrical shock

 

  1. What are the four categories of naval ships and craft?

a.       Submarines, aircraft carriers, destroyers & cruisers.

b.      Patrol craft, amphibious craft, harbor support craft and submarines.

c.       Combatants, Auxiliary ships, combatant craft and service craft.

d.      Mine warfare ships, amphibious ships, frigates and submarines.

 

  1. What is the name of the first U. S. Polaris ballistic missile submarine (1958)?

a.       USS Polaris

b.      USS George Washington

c.       USS Nautilus

d.      USS Albacore

 

  1. Which fleet is responsible for the Mediterranean Sea?

a.       First

b.      Third

c.       Fifth

d.      Sixth

 

  1. A modern carrier battle group (CVBG) usually has how many carriers?

a.       One

b.      Two

c.       Three

d.      Four

 

  1. What was the name of the first nuclear-powered submarine?

a.       USS Nautilus

b.      USS George Washington

c.       USS Lexington

d.      USS Enterprise

 

  1. An attack meant to damage, seize, or destroy an objective is known as a/an

a.       strike.

b.      assault.

c.       ambush.

d.      raid.

 

  1. The total number of signal flags is:

a.       36

b.      68

c.       128

d.      256

 

  1. International Morse code was developed for

a.       All people

b.      The U.S. Army

c.       The U.S. Navy

d.      All military personnel

 

  1. Which of the following is not a type of pyrotechnic signal?

a.       Pistol flares

b.      International Morse code

c.       Colored shell bursts

d.      Roman candles

 

  1. The best-known intelligence operations performed by the U.S. Navy during World War II were:

a.       breaking of the Japanese cipher code and gathering of information for amphibious operations

b.      overflights of the USSR by the U-2 and SR-71 spy planes

c.       satellite intelligence of the Mediterranean Sea

d.      Unmanned aerial vehicles over flights of the Normandy coast

 

  1. Military and political intelligence can best be defined as:

a.       to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government

b.      the concentration on tactical intelligence unique to the Navy

c.       information acquired on a national scale, usually about a rival, but sometimes about an ally or a neutral country

d.      a collection of information of interest to the Marine Corps and Army

 

  1. During the 1960s and 1970s these special secret high-speed jet aircraft were developed as "spy planes":

a.       P-51 and EA-6

b.      U-2 and SR-71

c.       P-3 and F-14

d.      P-3 and U-2

 

  1. The mission of the National Imagery and Mapping Agency is:

a.       to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government

b.      to coordinate spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. government

c.       to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security functions

d.      to provide all-source intelligence to the U.S. armed services

 

  1. The mission of the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) is:

a.       to provide all-source intelligence to the U.S. armed services, and coordinate all military intelligence resources

b.      to coordinate spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. government

c.       to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security functions

d.      to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government

 

  1. The National Security Agency's mission is:

a.       to coordinate spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. government

b.      to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security functions

c.       to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government

d.      to coordinate, direct and perform signals intelligence and information security functions in support of both defense and no defense U.S. government activities

 

  1. The mission of the National Reconnaissance Office is:

a.       to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security functions

b.      to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government

c.       to coordinate the spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. government

d.      to coordinate, direct and perform signals intelligence and information security functions in support of both defense and non-defense U.S. government activities

 

  1. The National Security Council consists of

a.       the president, the joint chiefs of staff, and the secretary of defense.

b.      the president, vice president, and the director of central intelligence.

c.       the president, vice president, secretary of state, and secretary of defense.

d.      the national security advisor and the director of central intelligence.

 

  1. Articles 77-134 of the UCMJ, which deal with specific infractions punishable under military law, are known as the

a.       general articles.

b.      punitive articles.

c.       administrative articles.

d.      jurisdictional articles.

 

  1. Strictly forbidden by article 55 of the UCMJ (prohibition of cruel and unusual punishments), but contrary to common practice in the days of sail, are

a.       confinement in a brig as punishment.

b.      awards of diminished rations (bread and water) as punishment.

c.       punishments such as flogging which may injure or demean the individual.

d.      sentences of death in time of war.

 

  1. The trial and punishment of offenders in the U.S. Armed Forces are covered by a set of laws named the

a.       Uniform Code of Military Justice.

b.      Manual for Courts-Martial.

c.       Manual of the Judge Advocate General.

d.      Navy Regulations.

 

  1. Three types of courts-martial, in order from lowest level of severity to highest, are

a.       special, general, and summary.

b.      summary, general, and special.

c.       summary, special, and general.

d.      general, special, and summary.

 

  1. The purpose of whipping a line is to prevent the bitter end from

a.       kinking.

b.      fraying.

c.       shrinking.

d.      stretching.

 

  1. The five permanent members of the United Nations are

a.       the United States, Great Britain, Germany, France, and India.

b.      the United States, Great Britain, Russia, Poland, and Japan.

c.       the United States, Great Britain, France, Russia, and China.

d.      the United States, Japan, France, Germany, and Italy,

 

  1. What is a fathometer?

a.       a GPS component

b.      a device which determines sea depth

c.       a device used to determine speed through water

d.      also called a fix, which determines the ship's bearing

 

  1. What three nations caused problems for the U.S. Navy between 1871 and 1875?

a.       France, Spain and Korea

b.      England, Spain and China

c.       China, Korea and France

d.      Spain, China and Korea

 

  1. The book, The Influence Of Sea Power Upon History, 1660-1783, was written by

a.       Commodore Stephen Luce, USN.

b.      Admiral David Porter, USN.

c.       Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan, USN.

d.      Admiral David G. Farragut, USN.

 

  1. In 1886, Captain Alfred Mahan, USN, was appointed president of the

a.       U.S. Naval Institute.

b.      U.S. Naval War College.

c.       U.S. Naval Academy

d.      U.S. Coast Guard Academy

 

  1. Who has sometimes been called "the real father of all modern navies"?

a.       Commodore Stephen Luce, USN

b.      Admiral David Porter, USN

c.       Captain John Paul Jones, USN

d.      Captain Alfred Mahan, USN

 

  1. __________________ in American newspapers, including publication of a letter by the Spanish Ambassador calling President McKinley "weak" whipped up American support for the Spanish-American war.

a.       "Yellow Journalism"

b.      "U.S. Military Prepares For War" essays.

c.       "How America Is Preparing For War" essays.

d.      "Ill Treatment Of Cubans By The Spanish Government" essays.

 

  1. The F-14 aircraft flies at a top speed of Mach 2.0.  How fast is Mach 2?

a.       The speed of sound

b.      The speed of light

c.       Twice the speed of sound

d.      600 miles per hour

 

  1. What countries made up the Central Powers during World War I?

a.       Japan, Russia and France

b.      France, Britain and Russia

c.       Turkey, Germany and Austria-Hungary

d.      France, Germany and Austria-Hungary

 

  1. What countries made up the Allied Powers during World War I?

a.       Germany, Britain and France

b.      France, Russia and Britain

c.       France, Germany and Austria-Hungary

d.      Russia, Germany and Austria-Hungary

 

  1. The main objective of the German U-boats in World War I was to

a.       attack France.

b.      attack U. S. Navy ships.

c.       attack merchant ships that were headed for Britain.

d.      attack British ships at night in the English Channel.

 

  1. Who was the commander of German surface forces in the Pacific when war broke out?

a.       Vice Admiral Reinhard Scheer

b.      Vice Admiral Manfred von Richthofen

c.       Vice Admiral Graf von Spee

d.      Vice Admiral Schlichter von Koenigswald

 

  1. The deepest spot in the North Atlantic basin is the

a.       Mid-Atlantic Ridge.

b.      South Sandwich Trench.

c.       Puerto Rico Trench.

d.      Greenland-Iceland Gap.

 

  1. What was the first meteorological instrument?

a.       Barometer

b.      Hygrometer

c.       Thermometer

d.      Wind-measuring device

 

  1. Where is the busiest and largest Atlantic port in Western Europe located?

a.       London, England

b.      Cannes, France

c.       Naples, Italy

d.      Antwerp, Belgium

 

  1. In which body of water are most of the shrimp caught that are consumed in the United States?

a.       North Atlantic

b.      Gulf of Mexico

c.       Caribbean Sea

d.      Gulf of Alaska

 

  1. What sea lies between the Suez Canal and the Gulf of Aden?

a.       Black Sea

b.      White Sea

c.       Red Sea

d.      Yellow Sea

 

  1. What percentage of the oil needs of the United States comes from the Persian Gulf area?

a.       40

b.      50

c.       30

d.      60

 

  1. Personnel at the U. S. naval base at McMurdo Sound, Antarctica are involved with

a.       exploration.

b.      cold-weather equipment testing.

c.       basic research on south polar marine life and weather.

d.      All of the above answers are correct.

 

  1. In 1991 Civil War Broke out in which Baltic Country?

a.       Greece

b.      Italy

c.       Turkey

d.      Yugoslavia

 

  1. In October 1992 the UN established a no-fly zone, and safe areas around several cities in

a.       Croatia.

b.      Serbia.

c.       Bosnia-Herzegovina.

d.      Spain.

 

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